Class 12 Biology Important MCQ Question Answer solution with pdf. Here We Provides Class 1 to 12 all Subjects NCERT Solution with Notes, Question Answer, CBSE and HBSE Important Questions, MCQ and old Question Papers for Students.
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HBSE ( Haryana Board ) Solution of Class 12 Biology MCQ important Question And Answer solution for 2025 exams.
HBSE Class 12 Biology MCQ Important Question 2025
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Typical Angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
(A) 7 nucleated 7 celled
(B) 8 nucleated 7 celled
(C) 8 nucleated 8 celled
(D) 9 nucleated 8 celled.
Ans – (B) 8 nucleated 7 celled
2. The examples of water pollinated plants are:
(A) Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(B) Oxalis, Viola
(C) Mango, Peepal
(D) Amorphophallus, Yucca
Ans – (A) Vallisneria, Hydrilla
3. The egg apparatus consists of __________ synergids & __________ egg cell.
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 1
(C) 2, 2
(D) 1, 1
Ans – (B) 2, 1
4. Which of the following fruit is partheno- carpic ?
(A) Pomegranate
(B) Banana
(C) Mango
(D) All of the above
Ans – (B) Banana
5. Which of the following nourishes the developing pollen grain ?
(A) Tapetum
(B) Endosperm
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans – (A) Tapetum
6. In Monocots (grasses) the embryo possess only one cotyledon, which is called as
(A) Scutellum
(B) Coleoptile
(C) Coleorhiza
(D) None of the above
Ans – (A) Scutellum
7. The mechanism of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a pistil is called
(A) Fertilization
(B) Pollination
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans – (B) Pollination
8. In Bryophytes the main plant body is:
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Haploid
9. Which of the following seed is albuminous ?
(A) Gram
(B) Castor
(C) Groundnut
(D) All of these
Ans – (B) Castor
10. Pollen grains of which plant cause pollen allergy ?
(A) Parthenium
(B) Corriandrum
(C) Triticum
(D) All of the above
Ans – (A) Parthenium
11. In which of the following polyembryony is found?
(A) Guava
(B) Orange
(C) Gram
(D) Maize
Ans – (B) Orange
12. Which of the following is present at the chalazal end of the embryo sac ?
(A) Synergids
(B) Antipodals
(C) Central cell
(D) Egg cell
Ans – (B) Antipodals
13. Which is pollinated by water?
(A) Water Hyacinth
(B) Waterlily
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans – (D) None of these
14. Which of the following is not pollinated by water?
(a) Vallisneria
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Zostera
(d) Water-lily
Ans – (d) Water-lily
15. Pollen grains of which plant cause allergy?
(a) Coriander
(b) Parthenium
(c) Triticum
(d) None of these
Ans – (b) Parthenium
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Where does fertilization take place in human beings ?
(A) Fallopian tube
(B) Uterus
(C) Cervix
(D) Vagina
Ans – (A) Fallopian tube
2. Which is diploid ?
(A) Spermatogonia
(B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Secondary spermatocyte
Ans – (C) Both (A) and (B)
3. LH (Luteinising hormone) acts on: Most Important
(A) Sertoli cells
(B) Leydig cells
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Pituitary gland
Ans – (B) Leydig cells
4. Which is haploid?
(A) Secondary oocyte
(B) First polar body
(C) Ovum
(D) All of these
Ans – (C) Ovum
5. In human female external include genitalia
(A) Mons pubis
(B) Labia majora and labia minora
(C) Hymen and clitoris
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
6. First Menstruation in human female is called:
(A) Menopause
(B) Menarch
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans – (B) Menarch
7. Which of the following cells have potency to give rise to all tissues and organs in the developing embryo?
(A) Sertoli cells
(B) Leydig cells
(C) Follicle cells
(D) Stem cells
Ans – (D) Stem cells
8. Which of the following is not a part of human male reproductive system?
(a) Cervix
(b) Uterus
(c) Oviduct
(d) All of these
Ans – (d) All of these
9. Which hormone is secreted by Pituitary gland in human female?
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) Oxytocin
(d) All of these
Ans – (d) All of these
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 – Reproductive Health MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUDs ?
(A) LNG-20
(B) Multiload 375
(C) Lippes loop
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) LNG-20
2. In which year Govt. of India has legalized MTP with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse ?
(A) 1969
(B) 1970
(C) 1971
(D) 1972
Ans – (C) 1971
3. Which of the following is a contraceptive method which is not made-up of rubber ?
(A) Diaphragms
(B) Cervical caps
(C) Vaults
(D) Copper-T
Ans – (D) Copper-T
4. Which is not an IUD?
(A) Cu-T
(B) Cu-7
(C) Multiload 375
(D) Vaults
Ans – (D) Vaults
5. When in human female early embryo is transferred from fallopian tube into uterus, then it consists of how many cells?
(A) Upto 8 blastomeres
(B) Upto 4 blastomeres
(C) Upto 2 blastomeres
(D) More than 8 blastomeres
Ans – (A) Upto 8 blastomeres
6. Which of the following sterilization method is used in human male ?
(A) Tubectomy
(B) Vasectomy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans – (B) Vasectomy
7. Which of the following is copper releasing Intrauterine Device (I. U. D.) ?
(A) Lippes loop
(B) Multiload 375
(C) LNG 20
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Multiload 375
8. Which of the following is not a Cu releasing IUD?
(a) Cu 7
(b) Multiload 375
(c) LNG-20
(d) All of these
Ans – (c) LNG-20
9. Which of the following is sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Hepatitis-B
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
10. Which of the following is an IUD:
(a) Lippes loop
(b) Vaults
(c) Diaphragms
(d) All of these
Ans – (a) Lippes loop
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Which one of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is dominant?
(A) Green pod colour
(B) Yellow pod colour
(C) White flower colour
(D) Terminal flower position
Ans – (A) Green pod colour
2. Which one of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is recessive?
(A) Yellow seed colour
(B) Yellow pod colour
(C) Violet colour
(D) Round seed shape
Ans – (B) Yellow pod colour
3. Based on observations on Monohybrid crosses Mendel proposed general rules to consolidate his understanding of inheritance in monohybrid cross. How many rules are called principle of inheritance or law of inheritance ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2
Ans – (A) 3
4. Which is autosomal dominant trait ?
(A) Myotonic dystrophy
(B) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Phenyl Ketonuria
Ans – (A) Myotonic dystrophy
5. Name the scientist who carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex linked ?
(A) Morgan
(B) Miller
(C) Urey
(D) H. Khorana
Ans – (A) Morgan
6. Which of the following is Heterozygous ?
(A) TT
(B) Tt
(C) tt
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Tt
7. Which of the following is homozygous ?
(A) Tt
(B) Yy
(C) TT
(D) All of these
Ans – (C) TT
8. Which of the following is recessive trait in Pea?
(A) Tall
(B) Violet flower
(C) Axial flower
(D) Yellow pod colour
Ans – (D) Yellow pod colour
9. Which of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is recessive ?
(A) Constricted pod shape
(B) Round seed shape
(C) Tall stem height
(D) Green pod colour
Ans – (A) Constricted pod shape
10. In which syndrome 45 chromosomes are found?
(A) Down’s
(B) Klinefelter’s
(C) Turner’s
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Turner’s
11. Male heterogamety is found in:
(A) Drosophila
(B) Grasshopper
(C) Human being
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
12. Female heterogamety is found in:
(A) Grasshopper
(B) Bird
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Drosophila
Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)
13. The sex chromosome in male bird is :
(A) ZZ
(B) ZW
(C) XY
(D) XO
Ans – (A) ZZ
14. The sex chromosome in male grasshopper is:
(A) XX
(B) XY
(C) XO
(D) ZZ
Ans – (C) XO
15. Which of the following is autosomal linked recessive trait ?
(A) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Phenyl Ketonuria
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Haemophilia
Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)
16. Male Heterogamy is found in:
(A) Grasshopper
(B) Drosophila
(C) Human
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
17. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of:
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome.
(D) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans – (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
18. XO type of sex determination is found in:
(A) Female grasshopper
(B) Male Drosophila
(C) Female Drosophila
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Female grasshopper
19. A child has blood group ‘O’ and her/his mother has blood group ‘A’, then what are the possibilities of blood group of her/his father ?
(A) ‘A’
(B) ‘B’
(C) ‘O’
(D) All of these
Ans – (A) ‘A’
20. A child and his/her mother both has blood group ‘O’. What can be the possibilities of blood group of father of child?
(A) ‘A’
(B) ‘B’
(C) O
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
21. How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are present in human?
(A) 44
(B) 46
(C) 22
(D) 23
Ans – (C) 22
22. Which of the following syndrome is an example of polyploidy?
(A) Down
(B) Klinefelter
(C) Turner
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Turner
23. Which of the following is an autosomal linked recessive trait ?
(A) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Phenylketonuria
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Haemophilia
Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)
24. Which of the following syndrome is an example of monosomy?
(A) Down
(B) Klinefelter
(C) Turner
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Turner
25. In which syndrome a person has 47 chromosomes?
(A) Down’s
(B) Klinefelter’s
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Turner’s
Ans – (C) (A) and (B) both
26. Phenylketonuria is an example of:
(a) Pleiotropy
(b) Polygenic inheritance
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) Autosomal dominant disorder
Ans – (a) Pleiotropy
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. To prove semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes, Taylor and his colleagues conducted experiments on :
(A) Vinca rosea
(B) Vicia faba
(C) Drosophila melanogaster
(D) E.coli
Ans – (B) Vicia faba
2. Which is a initiator Codon ? Most Important
(A) AAU
(B) AAC
(C) AUG
(D) AUA
Ans – (C) AUG
3. Terminator codon is:
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
4. Which is a stop codon ?
(A) UCA
(B) UAG
(C) UCG
(D) UUG
Ans – (B) UAG
5. Pneumonia is:
(A) Viral disease
(B) Bacterial disease
(C) Protozoan disease
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Bacterial disease
6. Total number of genetic code is:
(A) 64
(B) 63
(C) 62
(D) 61
Ans – (A) 64
7. How many effective codons are, for the synthesis of twenty amino acids ?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 20
(D) 3
Ans – (A) 64
8. How many Codons code for Amino acids?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 68
(D) 60
Ans – (A) 64
9. Which of the following RNA polymerase transcribes tRNA ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) III
10. Which RNA polymerase transcribes hnRNA ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) II
11. mRNA is transcribed by:
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) DNA polymerase
Ans – (B) RNA polymerase II
12. rRNA is transcribed by:
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) DNA polymerase
Ans – (A) RNA polymerase I
13. Which of the following is transcribed by rRNA polymerase-II ?
(A) tRNA
(B) 5s rRNA
(C) Sn RNA
(D) Hn RNA
Ans – (D) Hn RNA
14. Base pairs in haploid content of human DNA is:
(A) 3.0 × 109
(B) 3.3 × 109
(C) 2.3 × 105
(D) 4.6 × 10
Ans – (B) 3.3 × 109
15. Which is the another chemical name of 5 Methyl Uracil ?
(A) Thymine
(B) Cytosine
(C) Uracil
(D) Guanine
Ans – (A) Thymine
16. Anticodon is present on : Most Important
(A) mRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) DNA
Ans – (B) tRNA
17. The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is:
(A) 0.34 × 10-9 m
(B) 0.34 x 10 m
(C) 0.34 × 10-10 m
(D) 2.2 metres
Ans – (A) 0.34 × 10-9 m
18. Which is a purine ?
(A) Cytosine
(B) Uracil
(C) Thymine
(D) Guanine
Ans – (D) Guanine
19. Codon is present on :
(A) mRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) DNA
Ans – (A) mRNA
20. A typical nucleosome contains DNA helix of:
(A) 100bp
(B) 200bp
(C) 300bp
(D) 400bp
Ans – (B) 200bp
21. A typical nucleosome contains how many base pairs of DNA helix ?
(A) 200
(B) 400
(C) 1000
(D) 2000
Ans – (A) 200
22. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as enzyme in bacteria ?
(A) 5 S rRNA
(B) 23 S rRNA
(C) 18 S rRNA
(D) 5.8 S rRNA
Ans – (B) 23 S rRNA
23. In which phase of cell cycle DNA replication take place ?
(A) S-phase
(B) G₁-phase
(C) G2-phase
(D) M-phase
Ans – (A) S-phase
24. Which of the following bond is not present in DNA double helix ?
(A) Hydrogen bond
(B) Peptide bond
(C) Glycosidic bond
(D) Phosphodiester bond
Ans – (B) Peptide bond
25. Which of the following codon does not code for any amino acid ?
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) UAC
Ans – (A) UAA
26. Which of the following is transcribed by RNA polymerase-I ?
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) rRNAs
Ans -(D) rRNAs
27. How many genes are present in human ‘Y’ chromosome ?
(A) 231
(B) 456
(C) 196
(D) 192
Ans – (A) 231
28. How many genes are present in human Chromosome No. 1 ?
(A) 231
(B) 456
(C) 2968
(D) 3600
Ans – (C) 2968
29. Bases in two strands of DNA are paired by which of the followings bond ?
(A) Phosphodiester
(B) N-glycosidic
(C) Peptide
(D) Hydrogen
Ans – (D) Hydrogen
30. DNA fingerprinting is based on:
(a) Genetic mapping
(b) DNA polymorphism
(c) EST
(d) Bioinformatics
Ans – (b) DNA polymorphism
31. UTRS (Untranslated Regions) are present at:
(A) 5′ end
(B) 3′ end
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Both (A) and (B)
32. Which of the following RNA polymerase transcribes rRNAs (28s, 18s & 5,8s)?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) None of these
Ans – (a) I
33. By how many hydrogen bonds guanine is bonded with cytosine?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans – (c) 3
34. A double stranded DNA has 15% cytosine. What will be the percentage of thiamine in it?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 45%
Ans – (c) 35%
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 – Evolution MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. In the solar system, earth was supposed to have been formed about:
(A) 200 Billion years back
(B) 4.5 Million years back
(C) 4.5 Billion years back
(D) 400 Million years back
Ans – (B) 4.5 Million years back
2. Who developed the semi-dwarf variety of wheat?
(A) Norman E. Borlaug
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Gregor Mendel
(D) Herbert Boyer
Ans – (B) M. S. Swaminathan
3. Which of the following used hides to protect their body and buried their dead ?
(A) Dryopithecus
(B) Ramapithecus
(C) Homo erectus
(D) Neanderthal man
Ans – (D) Neanderthal man
4. Lobefins evolved into: Most Important
(A) Amphibians
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals
Ans – (A) Amphibians
5. Which of the following was having brain size of 1400 cc? Most Important
(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo sapiens
(D) Neanderthal man
Ans – (D) Neanderthal man
6. Which is indicator of industrial pollution ?
(A) White winged moth
(B) Dark winged moth
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Lichens
Ans – (D) Lichens
7. At which temperature Miller conducted the experiment ?
(A) 100 ºC
(B) 300 ºC
(C) 400 ºC
(D) 800 ºC
Ans – (D) 800 ºC
8. Darwin finches were :
(A) Marsupials
(B) Birds
(C) Fish
(D) Moth
Ans – (B) Birds
9. Which of the following mammal live in water?
(A) Whale
(B) Dolphin
(C) Seal
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
10. How many million years ago invertebrates were formed and active ?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 320
(D) 500
Ans – (D) 500
11. On which of the following Hugo de Vries worked & brought forth the idea of evolution?
(A) Pea
(B) Evening Primrose
(C) Marsupials
(D) Moth
Ans – (B) Evening Primrose
12. Which scientist stated that it is the mutation which causes evolution and not the minor variations ?
(A) Oparin
(B) Lamarck
(C) de Vries
(D) Darwin
Ans – (C) de Vries
13. Through experimentation, who demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life?
(A) Oparin
(B) Haldane
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Darwin
Ans – (C) Louis Pasteur
14. Which naturalist had said that evolution of life form occurred by use and discuss of organs ?
(A) Louis Pasture
(B) de Vries
(C) Lamarck
(D) Darwin
Ans – (C) Lamarck
15. Coelacanth was a:
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Reptile
(D) Bird
Ans – (A) Fish
16. Which fish like reptile evolved probably 200 mya?
(A) Tyrannosaurus
(B) Ichthyosaurs
(C) Pelycosaurs
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Ichthyosaurs
17. In 1938 Coelacanth was Caught from:
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) India
(D) South Africa
Ans – (D) South Africa
18. How many mya jawless fish probably evolved ?
(A) 320
(B) 350
(C) 400
(D) 500
Ans – (B) 350
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 – Human Health and Disease MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Which one is the pathogen of amoebic dysentery?
(A) Wuchereria
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Ascaris
(D) Entamoeba histolytica
Ans – (D) Entamoeba histolytica
2. Which of the following cause malignant malaria ?
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium falciparum
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Plasmodium falciparum
3. Common cold is :
(A) Viral disease
(B) Bacterial disease
(C) Protozoan disease
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Viral disease
4. Which disease is caused by Virus ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Common cold
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Malaria
Ans – (B) Common cold
5. Malaria is:
(A) Viral disease
(B) Protozoan disease
(C) Bacterial disease
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Protozoan disease
6. Which antibodies are found in abundance in colostrum?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG
Ans – (A) IgA
7. Which of the following have stimulating action?
(A) Cocaine
(B) Morphine
(C) Heroin
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Cocaine
8. Which antibodies produced in allergy ? Most Important
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG
Ans – (C) IgE
9. Malaria is caused by:
(A) Male Anopheles mosquito
(B) Female Anopheles mosquito
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Protozoan
Ans – (B) Female Anopheles mosquito
10. Progesterone hormone is secreted by:
(A) Leydig cells
(B) Sertoli cells
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Pituitary gland
Ans – (C) Corpus luteum
11. Cirrhosis is a disease of:
(A) Nervous system
(B) Liver
(C) Heart
(D) Prostate gland
Ans – (B) Liver
12. Which of the following organs is damaged in cirrhosis?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Brain
(d) Lungs
Ans – (b) Liver
13. Which disease is caused by Roundworm?
(A) Ascariasis
(B) Elephantiasis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ringworm
Ans – (A) Ascariasis
14. Which antibodies are abundant in colostrum? Most Important
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG
Ans – (A) IgA
15. Which one of the following is a pathogen of common cold?
(A) Salmonella
(B) Haemophilous influenzae
(C) Wuchereria
(D) Rhinovirus
Ans – (D) Rhinovirus
16. Which one of the following is the vector of Chikungunya disease ?
(A) Anopheles mosquito
(B) House fly
(C) Culex mosquito
(D) Aedes mosquito
Ans – (D) Aedes mosquito
17. Which one of the following is the vector of Dengue disease?
(A) House fly
(B) Culex mosquito
(C) Anopheles mosquito
(D) Aedes mosquito
Ans – (D) Aedes mosquito
18. Which is a primary lymphoid organ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Lymph node
(C) Peyer’s patch
(D) None of these
Ans – (D) None of these (bone marrow and thymus are primary)
19. Which is a secondary lymphoid organ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Thymus
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Spleen
20. Which of the following is a non-infectious disease?
(A) Cancer
(B) AIDS
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Ringworm
Ans – (A) Cancer
21. Assertion (A) : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by bacteria infected cells of the body.
Reason (R) : Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true but Reason (R) is not the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) are true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
Ans – (d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
22. Which of the following is reservoir of Erythrocytes?
(a) Spleen
(b) Heart
(c) Lymph node
(d) All of these
Ans – (a) Spleen
23. Assertion (A) : Heroin is an opioids.
Reason (R) : Heroin is obtained from Poppy Plant.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true but Reason (R) is not the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) are true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
Ans – (a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 – Microbes in Human Welfare MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Baker’s Yeast is used in the preparation of edible product?
(A) Curd
(B) Bread
(C) Idli
(D) Fermented fish
Ans – (D) Fermented fish
2. Who first discovered Antibiotic ?
(A) Mendel
(B) A. Fleming
(C) E. Chain
(D) H. Florey
Ans – (B) A. Fleming
3. The puffed up appearance of ‘dough’ is due to production of:
(A) O2 gas
(B) CO2 gas
(C) N₂ gas
(D) Helium gas
Ans – (B) CO2 gas
4. Who got Nobel Prize for discovery of Antibiotic in 1945 ?
(A) Fleming
(B) Chain
(C) Florey
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
5. Large holes in ‘Swiss Cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of:
(A) O2 gas
(B) CO2 gas
(C) N2 gas
(D) All of these
Ans – (B) CO2 gas
6. Acetic acid is produced by:
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Clostridium
(C) Acetobacter
(D) Saccharomyces
Ans – (B) Clostridium
7. Composition of Biogas is:
(A) CH4, O2, N2
(B) CH4, O2, H2
(C) CH4, CO2, H2
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) CH4, CO2, H2
8. The Curd is rich in vitamin :
(A) A
(B) B12
(C) E
(D) D
Ans – (B) B12
9. Bacterium, Lactobacillus is used in the preparation of edible product:
(A) Dosa
(B) Idli
(C) Curd
(D) Toddy
Ans – (C) Curd
10. Bacterium Propionibacterium Sharmanii is used in the preparation of edible product:
(A) Curd
(B) Swiss cheese
(C) Idli
(D) Roquefort cheese
Ans – (B) Swiss cheese
11. Brewer’s Yeast is used in the preparation of industrial product :
(A) Bread
(B) Ethanol
(C) Penicillin
(D) Acetic acid
Ans – (B) Ethanol
12. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria ?
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Nitrosomonas
Ans – (C) Rhizobium
13. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen? Most Important
(A) Anabaena
(B) Nostoc
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) All of these
Ans – (D) All of these
14. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil?
(A) Azospirillum
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Rhizobium
Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)
15. Which of the following is yeast?
(A) Lactobacillus
(B) Monascus
(C) Acetobacter
(D) Clostridium
Ans – (B) Monascus
16. Which of the following is obtained from coca plant?
(a) Smack
(b) Crack
(c) Charas
(d) Morphine
Ans – (b) Crack
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 – Biotechnology : Principles and Processes MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Genetic material is:
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Hormone
(D) DNA
Ans – (D) DNA
2. Which of the following enzyme is used to break plant cell wall?
(A) Lysozyme
(B) Chitinase
(C) Cellulase
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Cellulase
3. Which of the following enzyme is used to break cell wall of fungal cell?
(A) Chitinase
(B) Cellulase
(C) Lysozyme
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Chitinase
4. Tumor inducing Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens is used a cloning vector in:
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Plants
5. Which of the following is the first step in PCR?
(A) Replication
(B) Denaturing
(C) Annealing
(D) Extension
Ans – (B) Denaturing
6. Which of the following is not an essential feature of a cloning vector?
(a) ori site
(b) Selectable marker
(c) Cloning site
(d) Recombinant protein
Ans – (d) Recombinant protein
7. Assertion (A) : Biotechnology started with development of recombinant molecules.
Reason (R) : Biotechnology mostly involves in cutting & Pasting of desired parts of DNA.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true but Reason (R) is not the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) are true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
Ans – (a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 – Biotechnology and its Applications MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. 1st clinical Gene Therapy was given in:
(A) 1994
(B) 1993
(C) 1991
(D) 1990
Ans – (D) 1990
2. Bt toxin protein is active at:
(A) Acidic pH
(B) Neutral pH
(C) Both Basic & Neutral pH
(D) Alkaline pH only
Ans – (D) Alkaline pH only
3. Golden Rice is rich in :
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans – (A) Vitamin A
4. Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins which kills:
(A) Lepidopterans
(B) Coelopterans
(C) Dipterans
(D) All of the above
Ans – (D) All of the above
5. The protein encoded by gene Cry IAc control:
(A) Corn borer
(B) Cotton bollworm
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Mosquito
Ans – (B) Cotton bollworm
6. Chain A and B of insulin are linked together by:
(A) Phosphoester linkage
(B) N-glycosidic linkage
(C) Phosphodiester linkage
(D) Disulphide bridges
Ans – (D) Disulphide bridges
7. Flies are:
(A) Lepidopteran
(B) Dipteran
(C) Coleopteran
(D) None of these
Ans – (B) Dipteran
8. Which is Lepidopteran ?
(A) Fly
(B) Mosquito
(C) Beetle
(D) Army worm
Ans – (D) Army worm
9. Which of the following peptide chain is not present in mature insulin ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) C
10. Armyworm is:
(A) Coleopteran
(B) Dipteran
(C) Lepidopteran
(D) Bacillus
Ans – (C) Lepidopteran
11. When proinsulin changes into insulin which extra peptide is removed:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) C
12. Which is a dipteran?
(a) Beetle
(b) Army worm
(c) Tobacco bud worm
(d) Mosquito
Ans – (d) Mosquito
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 – Organisms and Populations MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. The interaction between Barnacles growing on the back of Whale is an example of:
(A) Mutualism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Amensalism
Ans – (C) Commensalism
2. The sign +/+ shows interaction:
(A) Predation
(B) Competition
(C) Mutualism
(D) Amensalism
Ans – (C) Mutualism
3. The sign +/- shows interaction :
(A) Mutualism
(B) Competition
(C) Amensalism
(D) Predation
Ans – (D) Predation
4. The sign +/0 shows interaction:
(A) Commensalism
(B) Predation
(C) Competition
(D) Mutualism
Ans – (A) Commensalism
5. When one species is benefited and other species is harmed, then such an interaction is called:
(A) Competition
(B) Mutualism
(C) Predation
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Competition
6. Who is regarded as father of Ecology in India ?
(A) K. C. Misra
(B) K. C. Mehta
(C) Ramdeo Misra
(D) P. Maheshwari
Ans – (C) Ramdeo Misra
7. Interaction between sea anemone and clown fish is an example of : Most Important
(A) Competition.
(B) Commensalism
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism
Ans – (B) Commensalism
8. The interaction between cattle egret and grazing cattle is an example of : Most Important
(A) Mutualism
(B) Predation
(C) Commensalism
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) Commensalism
9. Which of the following is the intermediate host of human liver fluke to complete its life cycle?
(A) Snail
(B) Fish
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Human being
Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)
10. The interaction between fig tree and wasp is an example of :
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Predation
Ans – (B) Mutualism
11. The interspecific interaction in which both the species are harmed is:
(a) Mutualism
(b) Predation
(c) Competition
(d) Parasitism
Ans – (c) Competition
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Which of the following is secondary producer ?
(A) Herbivores
(B) Green plants
(C) Carnivores
(D) None of these
Ans – (A) Herbivores
2. Which of the following is called connecting link between producers and carnivores in a grassland ecosystem ?
(A) Insects
(B) Frog
(C) Snake
(D) Bird
Ans – (A) Insects
3. Secondary consumers are at which trophic level ?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans – (C) Third
Assertion (A) : Net primary Productivity is greater than gross primary productivity.
Reason (R) : A part of net primary productivity goes waste during respiration.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true and Reason (R) is the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true but Reason (R) is not the correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) are true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
Ans – (d) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 – Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Important Questions 2024-25
1. Which is a part of in-situ conservation ? Most Important
(A) Wild life Safari Park
(B) Zoological Park
(C) National Park
(D) None of these
Ans – (C) National Park
2. How many Biosphere Reserves are in India?
(A) 448
(B) 90
(C) 14
(D) 114
Ans – (C) 14
3. How many Wildlife Sanctuaries are present in India?
(A) 14
(B) 90
(C) More than 448
(D) 200
Ans – (C) More than 448
4. Which of the following is not a threat to biodiversity ?
(A) Introduction of exotic species
(B) Wild life sanctuaries
(C) Habitat loss
(D) Pollution
Ans – (B) Wild life sanctuaries
5. The most richest species and high degree of endemism are found in:
(A) Mega diversity zone
(B) National park
(C) Sanctuaries
(D) Biodiversity hot-spots
Ans – (D) Biodiversity hot-spots
6. Which of the following taxa have maximum species diversity ?
(A) Fishes
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals
Ans – (A) Fishes
7. World summit was held in:
(a) London
(b) Johannesburg
(c) Sydney
(d) Chennai
Ans – (b) Johannesburg
8. Which of the following is most species rich taxonomic group ?
(A) Amphibian
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals
Ans – (C) Birds