HBSE Class 12 Biology MCQ Important Questions Answer 2024 PDF

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HBSE ( Haryana Board ) Solution of Class 12 Biology MCQ important Question And Answer solution for 2024 exams.

HBSE Class 12 Biology MCQ Important Question 2024


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Typical Angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
(A) 7 nucleated 7 celled
(B) 8 nucleated 7 celled
(C) 8 nucleated 8 celled
(D) 9 nucleated 8 celled.

Answer

Ans – (B) 8 nucleated 7 celled


2. The examples of water pollinated plants are:
(A) Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(B) Oxalis, Viola
(C) Mango, Peepal
(D) Amorphophallus, Yucca

Answer

Ans – (A) Vallisneria, Hydrilla


3. The egg apparatus consists of __________ synergids & __________ egg cell.
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 1
(C) 2, 2
(D) 1, 1

Answer

Ans – (B) 2, 1


4. Which of the following fruit is partheno- carpic ?
(A) Pomegranate
(B) Banana
(C) Mango
(D) All of the above

Answer

Ans – (B) Banana


5. Which of the following nourishes the developing pollen grain ?
(A) Tapetum
(B) Endosperm
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer

Ans – (A) Tapetum


6. In Monocots (grasses) the embryo possess only one cotyledon, which is called as
(A) Scutellum
(B) Coleoptile
(C) Coleorhiza
(D) None of the above

Answer

Ans – (A) Scutellum


7. The mechanism of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a pistil is called
(A) Fertilization
(B) Pollination
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer

Ans – (B) Pollination


8. In Bryophytes the main plant body is:
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Haploid


9. Which of the following seed is albuminous ?
(A) Gram
(B) Castor
(C) Groundnut
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Castor


10. Pollen grains of which plant cause pollen allergy ?
(A) Parthenium
(B) Corriandrum
(C) Triticum
(D) All of the above

Answer

Ans – (A) Parthenium


11. In which of the following polyembryony is found?
(A) Guava
(B) Orange
(C) Gram
(D) Maize

Answer

Ans – (B) Orange


12. Which of the following is present at the chalazal end of the embryo sac ?
(A) Synergids
(B) Antipodals
(C) Central cell
(D) Egg cell

Answer

Ans – (B) Antipodals


13. Which is pollinated by water?
(A) Water Hyacinth
(B) Waterlily
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (D) None of these


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 – Human Reproduction MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Where does fertilization take place in human beings ?
(A) Fallopian tube
(B) Uterus
(C) Cervix
(D) Vagina

Answer

Ans – (A) Fallopian tube


2. Which is diploid ?
(A) Spermatogonia
(B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Secondary spermatocyte

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) and (B)


3. LH (Luteinising hormone) acts on:
(A) Sertoli cells
(B) Leydig cells
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Pituitary gland

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


4. Which is haploid?
(A) Secondary oocyte
(B) First polar body
(C) Ovum
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Ovum


5. In human female external include genitalia
(A) Mons pubis
(B) Labia majora and labia minora
(C) Hymen and clitoris
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


6. First Menstruation in human female is called:
(A) Menopause
(B) Menarch
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer

Ans – (B) Menarch


7. Which of the following cells have potency to give rise to all tissues and organs in the developing embryo?
(A) Sertoli cells
(B) Leydig cells
(C) Follicle cells
(D) Stem cells

Answer

Ans – (D) Stem cells


8. Which of the following is not a part of human male reproductive system?
(a) Cervix
(b) Uterus
(c) Oviduct
(d) All of these

Answer

Ans – (d) All of these


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 – Reproductive Health MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUDs ?
(A) LNG-20
(B) Multiload 375
(C) Lippes loop
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) LNG-20


2. In which year Govt. of India has legalized MTP with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse ?
(A) 1969
(B) 1970
(C) 1971
(D) 1972

Answer

Ans – (C) 1971


3. Which of the following is a contraceptive method which is not made-up of rubber ?
(A) Diaphragms
(B) Cervical caps
(C) Vaults
(D) Copper-T

Answer

Ans – (D) Copper-T


4. Which is not an IUD?
(A) Cu-T
(B) Cu-7
(C) Multiload 375
(D) Vaults

Answer

Ans – (D) Vaults


5. When in human female early embryo is transferred from fallopian tube into uterus, then it consists of how many cells?
(A) Upto 8 blastomeres
(B) Upto 4 blastomeres
(C) Upto 2 blastomeres
(D) More than 8 blastomeres

Answer

Ans – (A) Upto 8 blastomeres


6. Which of the following sterilization method is used in human male ?
(A) Tubectomy
(B) Vasectomy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer

Ans – (B) Vasectomy


7. Which of the following is copper releasing Intrauterine Device (I. U. D.) ?
(A) Lippes loop
(B) Multiload 375
(C) LNG 20
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Multiload 375


8. Which of the following is not a Cu releasing IUD?
(a) Cu 7
(b) Multiload 375
(c) LNG-20
(d) All of these

Answer

Ans – (c) LNG-20


9. Which of the following is sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Hepatitis-B
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


10. Which of the following is an IUD:
(a) Lippes loop
(b) Vaults
(c) Diaphragms
(d) All of these

Answer

Ans – (a) Lippes loop


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Which one of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is dominant?
(A) Green pod colour
(B) Yellow pod colour
(C) White flower colour
(D) Terminal flower position

Answer

Ans – (A) Green pod colour


2. Which one of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is recessive?
(A) Yellow seed colour
(B) Yellow pod colour
(C) Violet colour
(D) Round seed shape

Answer

Ans – (B) Yellow pod colour


3. Based on observations on Monohybrid crosses Mendel proposed general rules to consolidate his understanding of inheritance in monohybrid cross. How many rules are called principle of inheritance or law of inheritance ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2

Answer

Ans – (A) 3


4. Which is autosomal dominant trait ?
(A) Myotonic dystrophy
(B) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Phenyl Ketonuria

Answer

Ans – (A) Myotonic dystrophy


5. Name the scientist who carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex linked ?
(A) Morgan
(B) Miller
(C) Urey
(D) H. Khorana

Answer

Ans – (A) Morgan


6. Which of the following is Heterozygous ?
(A) TT
(B) Tt
(C) tt
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Tt


7. Which of the following is homozygous ?
(A) Tt
(B) Yy
(C) TT
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (C) TT


8. Which of the following is recessive trait in Pea?
(A) Tall
(B) Violet flower
(C) Axial flower
(D) Yellow pod colour

Answer

Ans – (D) Yellow pod colour


9. Which of the following trait of pea plant studied by Mendel is recessive ?
(A) Constricted pod shape
(B) Round seed shape
(C) Tall stem height
(D) Green pod colour

Answer

Ans – (A) Constricted pod shape


10. In which syndrome 45 chromosomes are found?
(A) Down’s
(B) Klinefelter’s
(C) Turner’s
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Turner’s


11. Male heterogamety is found in:
(A) Drosophila
(B) Grasshopper
(C) Human being
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


12. Female heterogamety is found in:
(A) Grasshopper
(B) Bird
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Drosophila

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


13. The sex chromosome in male bird is :
(A) ZZ
(B) ZW
(C) XY
(D) XO

Answer

Ans – (A) ZZ


14. The sex chromosome in male grasshopper is:
(A) XX
(B) XY
(C) XO
(D) ZZ

Answer

Ans – (C) XO


15. Which of the following is autosomal linked recessive trait ?
(A) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Phenyl Ketonuria
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Haemophilia

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


16. Male Heterogamy is found in:
(A) Grasshopper
(B) Drosophila
(C) Human
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


17. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of:
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome.
(D) Sickle cell anaemia

Answer

Ans – (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome


18. XO type of sex determination is found in:
(A) Female grasshopper
(B) Male Drosophila
(C) Female Drosophila
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Female grasshopper


19. A child has blood group ‘O’ and her/his mother has blood group ‘A’, then what are the possibilities of blood group of her/his father ?
(A) ‘A’
(B) ‘B’
(C) ‘O’
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (A) ‘A’


20. A child and his/her mother both has blood group ‘O’. What can be the possibilities of blood group of father of child?
(A) ‘A’
(B) ‘B’
(C) O
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


21. How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are present in human?
(A) 44
(B) 46
(C) 22
(D) 23

Answer

Ans – (C) 22


22. Which of the following syndrome is an example of polyploidy?
(A) Down
(B) Klinefelter
(C) Turner
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Turner


23. Which of the following is an autosomal linked recessive trait ?
(A) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Phenylketonuria
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Haemophilia

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


24. Which of the following syndrome is an example of monosomy?
(A) Down
(B) Klinefelter
(C) Turner
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Turner


25. In which syndrome a person has 47 chromosomes?
(A) Down’s
(B) Klinefelter’s
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Turner’s

Answer

Ans – (C) (A) and (B) both


26. Phenylketonuria is an example of:
(a) Pleiotropy
(b) Polygenic inheritance
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) Autosomal dominant disorder

Answer

Ans – (a) Pleiotropy


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. To prove semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes, Taylor and his colleagues conducted experiments on :
(A) Vinca rosea
(B) Vicia faba
(C) Drosophila melanogaster
(D) E.coli

Answer

Ans – (B) Vicia faba


2. Which is a initiator Codon ? Most Important
(A) AAU
(B) AAC
(C) AUG
(D) AUA

Answer

Ans – (C) AUG


3. Terminator codon is:
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


4. Which is a stop codon ?
(A) UCA
(B) UAG
(C) UCG
(D) UUG

Answer

Ans – (B) UAG


5. Pneumonia is:
(A) Viral disease
(B) Bacterial disease
(C) Protozoan disease
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Bacterial disease


6. Total number of genetic code is:
(A) 64
(B) 63
(C) 62
(D) 61

Answer

Ans – (A) 64


7. How many effective codons are, for the synthesis of twenty amino acids ?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 20
(D) 3

Answer

Ans – (A) 64


8. How many Codons code for Amino acids?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 68
(D) 60

Answer

Ans – (A) 64


9. Which of the following RNA polymerase transcribes tRNA ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) III


10. Which RNA polymerase transcribes hnRNA ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) II


11. mRNA is transcribed by:
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) DNA polymerase

Answer

Ans – (B) RNA polymerase II


12. rRNA is transcribed by:
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) DNA polymerase

Answer

Ans – (A) RNA polymerase I


13. Which of the following is transcribed by rRNA polymerase-II ?
(A) tRNA
(B) 5s rRNA
(C) Sn RNA
(D) Hn RNA

Answer

Ans – (D) Hn RNA


14. Base pairs in haploid content of human DNA is:
(A) 3.0 × 109
(B) 3.3 × 109
(C) 2.3 × 105
(D) 4.6 × 10

Answer

Ans – (B) 3.3 × 109


15. Which is the another chemical name of 5 Methyl Uracil ?
(A) Thymine
(B) Cytosine
(C) Uracil
(D) Guanine

Answer

Ans – (A) Thymine


16. Anticodon is present on :
(A) mRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) DNA

Answer

Ans – (B) tRNA


17. The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is:
(A) 0.34 × 10-9 m
(B) 0.34 x 10 m
(C) 0.34 × 10-10 m
(D) 2.2 metres

Answer

Ans – (A) 0.34 × 10-9 m


18. Which is a purine ?
(A) Cytosine
(B) Uracil
(C) Thymine
(D) Guanine

Answer

Ans – (D) Guanine


19. Codon is present on :
(A) mRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) DNA

Answer

Ans – (A) mRNA


20. A typical nucleosome contains DNA helix of:
(A) 100bp
(B) 200bp
(C) 300bp
(D) 400bp

Answer

Ans – (B) 200bp


21. A typical nucleosome contains how many base pairs of DNA helix ?
(A) 200
(B) 400
(C) 1000
(D) 2000

Answer

Ans – (A) 200


22. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as enzyme in bacteria ?
(A) 5 S rRNA
(B) 23 S rRNA
(C) 18 S rRNA
(D) 5.8 S rRNA

Answer

Ans – (B) 23 S rRNA


23. In which phase of cell cycle DNA replication take place ?
(A) S-phase
(B) G₁-phase
(C) G2-phase
(D) M-phase

Answer

Ans – (A) S-phase


24. Which of the following bond is not present in DNA double helix ?
(A) Hydrogen bond
(B) Peptide bond
(C) Glycosidic bond
(D) Phosphodiester bond

Answer

Ans – (B) Peptide bond


25. Which of the following codon does not code for any amino acid ?
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) UAC

Answer

Ans – (A) UAA


26. Which of the following is transcribed by RNA polymerase-I ?
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) rRNAs

Answer

Ans -(D) rRNAs


27. How many genes are present in human ‘Y’ chromosome ?
(A) 231
(B) 456
(C) 196
(D) 192

Answer

Ans – (A) 231


28. How many genes are present in human Chromosome No. 1 ?
(A) 231
(B) 456
(C) 2968
(D) 3600

Answer

Ans – (C) 2968


29. Bases in two strands of DNA are paired by which of the followings bond ?
(A) Phosphodiester
(B) N-glycosidic
(C) Peptide
(D) Hydrogen

Answer

Ans – (D) Hydrogen


30. DNA fingerprinting is based on:
(a) Genetic mapping
(b) DNA polymorphism
(c) EST
(d) Bioinformatics

Answer

Ans – (b) DNA polymorphism


31. UTRS (Untranslated Regions) are present at:
(A) 5′ end
(B) 3′ end
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) and (B)


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 – Evolution MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. In the solar system, earth was supposed to have been formed about:
(A) 200 Billion years back
(B) 4.5 Million years back
(C) 4.5 Billion years back
(D) 400 Million years back

Answer

Ans – (B) 4.5 Million years back


2. Who developed the semi-dwarf variety of wheat?
(A) Norman E. Borlaug
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Gregor Mendel
(D) Herbert Boyer

Answer

Ans – (B) M. S. Swaminathan


3. Which of the following used hides to protect their body and buried their dead ?
(A) Dryopithecus
(B) Ramapithecus
(C) Homo erectus
(D) Neanderthal man

Answer

Ans – (D) Neanderthal man


4. Lobefins evolved into: Most Important
(A) Amphibians
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals

Answer

Ans – (A) Amphibians


5. Which of the following was having brain size of 1400 cc? Most Important
(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo sapiens
(D) Neanderthal man

Answer

Ans – (D) Neanderthal man


6. Which is indicator of industrial pollution ?
(A) White winged moth
(B) Dark winged moth
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Lichens

Answer

Ans – (D) Lichens


7. At which temperature Miller conducted the experiment ?
(A) 100 ºC
(B) 300 ºC
(C) 400 ºC
(D) 800 ºC

Answer

Ans – (D) 800 ºC


8. Darwin finches were :
(A) Marsupials
(B) Birds
(C) Fish
(D) Moth

Answer

Ans – (B) Birds


9. Which of the following mammal live in water?
(A) Whale
(B) Dolphin
(C) Seal
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


10. How many million years ago invertebrates were formed and active ?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 320
(D) 500

Answer

Ans – (D) 500


11. On which of the following Hugo de Vries worked & brought forth the idea of evolution?
(A) Pea
(B) Evening Primrose
(C) Marsupials
(D) Moth

Answer

Ans – (B) Evening Primrose


12. Which scientist stated that it is the mutation which causes evolution and not the minor variations ?
(A) Oparin
(B) Lamarck
(C) de Vries
(D) Darwin

Answer

Ans – (C) de Vries


13. Through experimentation, who demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life?
(A) Oparin
(B) Haldane
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Darwin

Answer

Ans – (C) Louis Pasteur


14. Which naturalist had said that evolution of life form occurred by use and discuss of organs ?
(A) Louis Pasture
(B) de Vries
(C) Lamarck
(D) Darwin

Answer

Ans – (C) Lamarck


15. Coelacanth was a:
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Reptile
(D) Bird

Answer

Ans – (A) Fish


16. Which fish like reptile evolved probably 200 mya?
(A) Tyrannosaurus
(B) Ichthyosaurs
(C) Pelycosaurs
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Ichthyosaurs


17. In 1938 Coelacanth was Caught from:
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) India
(D) South Africa

Answer

Ans –  (D) South Africa


18. How many mya jawless fish probably evolved ?
(A) 320
(B) 350
(C) 400
(D) 500

Answer

Ans – (B) 350


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 – Human Health and Disease MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Which one is the pathogen of amoebic dysentery?
(A) Wuchereria
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Ascaris
(D) Entamoeba histolytica

Answer

Ans – (D) Entamoeba histolytica


2. Which of the following cause malignant malaria ?
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium falciparum
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Plasmodium falciparum


3. Common cold is :
(A) Viral disease
(B) Bacterial disease
(C) Protozoan disease
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Viral disease


4. Which disease is caused by Virus ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Common cold
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Malaria

Answer

Ans – (B) Common cold


5. Malaria is:
(A) Viral disease
(B) Protozoan disease
(C) Bacterial disease
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Protozoan disease


6. Which antibodies are found in abundance in colostrum?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG

Answer

Ans – (A) IgA


7. Which of the following have stimulating action?
(A) Cocaine
(B) Morphine
(C) Heroin
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Cocaine


8. Which antibodies produced in allergy ? Most Important
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG

Answer

Ans – (C) IgE


9. Malaria is caused by:
(A) Male Anopheles mosquito
(B) Female Anopheles mosquito
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Protozoan

Answer

Ans – (B) Female Anopheles mosquito


10. Progesterone hormone is secreted by:
(A) Leydig cells
(B) Sertoli cells
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Pituitary gland

Answer

Ans – (C) Corpus luteum


11. Cirrhosis is a disease of:
(A) Nervous system
(B) Liver
(C) Heart
(D) Prostate gland

Answer

Ans –  (B) Liver


12. Which of the following organs is damaged in cirrhosis?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Brain
(d) Lungs

Answer

Ans – (b) Liver


13. Which disease is caused by Roundworm?
(A) Ascariasis
(B) Elephantiasis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ringworm

Answer

Ans – (A) Ascariasis


14. Which antibodies are abundant in colostrum? Most Important
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG

Answer

Ans – (A) IgA


15. Which one of the following is a pathogen of common cold?
(A) Salmonella
(B) Haemophilous influenzae
(C) Wuchereria
(D) Rhinovirus

Answer

Ans – (D) Rhinovirus


16. Which one of the following is the vector of Chikungunya disease ?
(A) Anopheles mosquito
(B) House fly
(C) Culex mosquito
(D) Aedes mosquito

Answer

Ans – (D) Aedes mosquito


17. Which one of the following is the vector of Dengue disease?
(A) House fly
(B) Culex mosquito
(C) Anopheles mosquito
(D) Aedes mosquito

Answer

Ans – (D) Aedes mosquito


18. Which is a primary lymphoid organ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Lymph node
(C) Peyer’s patch
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (D) None of these (bone marrow and thymus are primary)


19. Which is a secondary lymphoid organ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Thymus
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Spleen


20. Which of the following is a non-infectious disease?
(A) Cancer
(B) AIDS
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Ringworm

Answer

Ans – (A) Cancer


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 – Microbes in Human Welfare MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Baker’s Yeast is used in the preparation of edible product?
(A) Curd
(B) Bread
(C) Idli
(D) Fermented fish

Answer

Ans – (D) Fermented fish


2. Who first discovered Antibiotic ?
(A) Mendel
(B) A. Fleming
(C) E. Chain
(D) H. Florey

Answer

Ans – (B) A. Fleming


3. The puffed up appearance of ‘dough’ is due to production of:
(A) O2 gas
(B) CO2 gas
(C) N₂ gas
(D) Helium gas

Answer

Ans – (B) CO2 gas


4. Who got Nobel Prize for discovery of Antibiotic in 1945 ?
(A) Fleming
(B) Chain
(C) Florey
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


5. Large holes in ‘Swiss Cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of:
(A) O2 gas
(B) CO2 gas
(C) N2 gas
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (B) CO2 gas


6. Acetic acid is produced by:
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Clostridium
(C) Acetobacter
(D) Saccharomyces

Answer

Ans – (B) Clostridium


7. Composition of Biogas is:
(A) CH4, O2, N2
(B) CH4, O2, H2
(C) CH4, CO2, H2
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) CH4, CO2, H2


8. The Curd is rich in vitamin :
(A) A
(B) B12
(C) E
(D) D

Answer

Ans – (B) B12


9. Bacterium, Lactobacillus is used in the preparation of edible product:
(A) Dosa
(B) Idli
(C) Curd
(D) Toddy

Answer

Ans – (C) Curd


10. Bacterium Propionibacterium Sharmanii is used in the preparation of edible product:
(A) Curd
(B) Swiss cheese
(C) Idli
(D) Roquefort cheese

Answer

Ans – (B) Swiss cheese


11. Brewer’s Yeast is used in the preparation of industrial product :
(A) Bread
(B) Ethanol
(C) Penicillin
(D) Acetic acid

Answer

Ans – (B) Ethanol


12. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria ?
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Nitrosomonas

Answer

Ans – (C) Rhizobium


13. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?
(A) Anabaena
(B) Nostoc
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) All of these

Answer

Ans – (D) All of these


14. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil?
(A) Azospirillum
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Rhizobium

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


15. Which of the following is yeast?
(A) Lactobacillus
(B) Monascus
(C) Acetobacter
(D) Clostridium

Answer

Ans – (B) Monascus


16. Which of the following is obtained from coca plant?
(a) Smack
(b) Crack
(c) Charas
(d) Morphine

Answer

Ans – (b) Crack


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 – Biotechnology : Principles and Processes MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Genetic material is:
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Hormone
(D) DNA

Answer

Ans – (D) DNA


2. Which of the following enzyme is used to break plant cell wall?
(A) Lysozyme
(B) Chitinase
(C) Cellulase
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Cellulase


3. Which of the following enzyme is used to break cell wall of fungal cell?
(A) Chitinase
(B) Cellulase
(C) Lysozyme
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Chitinase


4. Tumor inducing Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens is used a cloning vector in:
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Plants


5. Which of the following is the first step in PCR?
(A) Replication
(B) Denaturing
(C) Annealing
(D) Extension

Answer

Ans – (B) Denaturing


6. Which of the following is not an essential feature of a cloning vector?
(a) ori site
(b) Selectable marker
(c) Cloning site
(d) Recombinant protein

Answer

Ans – (d) Recombinant protein


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 – Biotechnology and its Applications MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. 1st clinical Gene Therapy was given in:
(A) 1994
(B) 1993
(C) 1991
(D) 1990

Answer

Ans – (D) 1990


2. Bt toxin protein is active at:
(A) Acidic pH
(B) Neutral pH
(C) Both Basic & Neutral pH
(D) Alkaline pH only

Answer

Ans – (D) Alkaline pH only


3. Golden Rice is rich in :
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

Answer

Ans – (A) Vitamin A


4. Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins which kills:
(A) Lepidopterans
(B) Coelopterans
(C) Dipterans
(D) All of the above

Answer

Ans – (D) All of the above


5. The protein encoded by gene Cry IAc control:
(A) Corn borer
(B) Cotton bollworm
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Mosquito

Answer

Ans – (B) Cotton bollworm


6. Chain A and B of insulin are linked together by:
(A) Phosphoester linkage
(B) N-glycosidic linkage
(C) Phosphodiester linkage
(D) Disulphide bridges

Answer

Ans – (D) Disulphide bridges


7. Flies are:
(A) Lepidopteran
(B) Dipteran
(C) Coleopteran
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (B) Dipteran


8. Which is Lepidopteran ?
(A) Fly
(B) Mosquito
(C) Beetle
(D) Army worm

Answer

Ans – (D) Army worm


9. Which of the following peptide chain is not present in mature insulin ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) C


10. Armyworm is:
(A) Coleopteran
(B) Dipteran
(C) Lepidopteran
(D) Bacillus

Answer

Ans – (C) Lepidopteran


11. When proinsulin changes into insulin which extra peptide is removed:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) C


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 – Organisms and Populations MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. The interaction between Barnacles growing on the back of Whale is an example of:
(A) Mutualism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Amensalism

Answer

Ans – (C) Commensalism


2. The sign +/+ shows interaction:
(A) Predation
(B) Competition
(C) Mutualism
(D) Amensalism

Answer

Ans – (C) Mutualism


3. The sign +/- shows interaction :
(A) Mutualism
(B) Competition
(C) Amensalism
(D) Predation

Answer

Ans – (D) Predation


4. The sign +/0 shows interaction:
(A) Commensalism
(B) Predation
(C) Competition
(D) Mutualism

Answer

Ans – (A) Commensalism


5. When one species is benefited and other species is harmed, then such an interaction is called:
(A) Competition
(B) Mutualism
(C) Predation
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Competition


6. Who is regarded as father of Ecology in India ?
(A) K. C. Misra
(B) K. C. Mehta
(C) Ramdeo Misra
(D) P. Maheshwari

Answer

Ans – (C) Ramdeo Misra


7. Interaction between sea anemone and clown fish is an example of :
(A) Competition.
(B) Commensalism
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism

Answer

Ans – (B) Commensalism


8. The interaction between cattle egret and grazing cattle is an example of : Most Important
(A) Mutualism
(B) Predation
(C) Commensalism
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) Commensalism


9. Which of the following is the intermediate host of human liver fluke to complete its life cycle?
(A) Snail
(B) Fish
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Human being

Answer

Ans – (C) Both (A) & (B)


10. The interaction between fig tree and wasp is an example of :
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Predation

Answer

Ans – (B) Mutualism


11. The interspecific interaction in which both the species are harmed is:
(a) Mutualism
(b) Predation
(c) Competition
(d) Parasitism

Answer

Ans – (c) Competition


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 – Ecosystem MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Which of the following is secondary producer ?
(A) Herbivores
(B) Green plants
(C) Carnivores
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (A) Herbivores


2. Which of the following is called connecting link between producers and carnivores in a grassland ecosystem ?
(A) Insects
(B) Frog
(C) Snake
(D) Bird

Answer

Ans – (A) Insects


3. Secondary consumers are at which trophic level ?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

Answer

Ans – (C) Third


HBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 – Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Important Questions 2024


1. Which is a part of in-situ conservation ?
(A) Wild life Safari Park
(B) Zoological Park
(C) National Park
(D) None of these

Answer

Ans – (C) National Park


2. How many Biosphere Reserves are in India?
(A) 448
(B) 90
(C) 14
(D) 114

Answer

Ans – (C) 14


3. How many Wildlife Sanctuaries are present in India?
(A) 14
(B) 90
(C) More than 448
(D) 200

Answer

Ans – (C) More than 448


4. Which of the following is not a threat to biodiversity ?
(A) Introduction of exotic species
(B) Wild life sanctuaries
(C) Habitat loss
(D) Pollution

Answer

Ans – (B) Wild life sanctuaries


5. The most richest species and high degree of endemism are found in:
(A) Mega diversity zone
(B) National park
(C) Sanctuaries
(D) Biodiversity hot-spots

Answer

Ans – (D) Biodiversity hot-spots


6. Which of the following taxa have maximum species diversity ?
(A) Fishes
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals

Answer

Ans – (A) Fishes


7. World summit was held in:
(a) London
(b) Johannesburg
(c) Sydney
(d) Chennai

Answer

Ans – (b) Johannesburg


8. Which of the following is most species rich taxonomic group ?
(A) Amphibian
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals

Answer

Ans – (C) Birds


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